| Posted by: Cha Ngo at December 18, 2005, 3:34 pm | | Topic: Basic poker theory questions Forum: Bonus Whores | It looks like you are mixing the games. Are you talking about LIMIT Holdem (which Sklansky writes about mainly) or big bet poker (which your "calling 40% of the pot" would tend to imply)? In big bet poker, I think implied odds make some calls good in NL/PL where they would not be so in limit. Example would be calling with a small pair in late position against a raiser with a big stack who is likely to pay off a big bet on the flop if you hit your set. In limit, it is much harder to make up ground on hands like that.
As far as your calculation question, Derek answered that.
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| Posted by: elf23 at December 18, 2005, 2:25 pm | | Topic: Basic poker theory questions Forum: Bonus Whores | Although remember that if you are using the "turn+river cards to come" odds for making your hand you can't just think about the flop bet, you have to think about the flop+turn bets that you will have to call.....
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| Posted by: derek at December 18, 2005, 10:11 am | | Topic: Basic poker theory questions Forum: Bonus Whores | | you calculate for the 47 UNseen cards.Sometimes playing live you will know if a player was holding cards that matched the board and figure it in but otherwise just use all unseen cards when figuring out your out%.If you are just starting out use the 4/2 rule..multiply 4x outs with 2 cards to come and you will get the rough % to make your hand. Use 2x outs with just river and you get rough % to make your hand. | | Static Link |
| Posted by: flushemout24 at December 18, 2005, 9:48 am | | Topic: Basic poker theory questions Forum: Bonus Whores | Okai, from what I can gather, david talks about a theory in his book where the basics, or part of the basic theory is pot odds.
e.g, if your odds to win are 1 in 5, but you are calling 40% of the pot to stay in, this is bad no matter which way you look at it (correct me if im wrong)
Im going to have to buy the book and read it properly, but my question is.
Say for some quick calculations, your playing a full table of 10.
So there are 23 cards out of the deck on the flop.
And you have 10 outs.
How would you calculate the percentage of getting your out?
Would it still be 10/47 because 52 cards in a deck minus your 2 minus the flop.
But really theres only 29 cards left in the deck because of the pocket cards people have.
And for all you know, your outs could be in the pockets of other players.
So what I want to know is, whats the general rule of thumb people use to factor into their equations to work out the chances... | | Read Entire Entry |
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