| Posted by: diabloblanco at June 3, 2005, 10:55 am | | Topic: Questions for the more advanced players Forum: Card Chat |
But isn't that "statistically speaking", not true...I mean I understand that it is improbbable...but each dealing of the cards is a single solitary act that irrespective of the previous hands can come up any 2 cards. I get the concept that it may "seem" less likely that it will happen, but when dealing with an inanimate, manipulated object, like a deck of cards it seems to me like there are too many ariables for any outcome to be accurately predicted. Its all realative....
I am off to the net in search of what I am looking for, I will post back. Maybe I am just making this more complex than in actually is.
BTW, VegasGrinder, thanks for the reply. I would like to know, however, how one would come to this conclusion regarding this specific example. I'm not looking for a simplification of it, or someone to say "you're wrong." I want to be shown how I'm wrong and how to correctly figure the odds the right way.
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