| Posted by: diabloblanco at June 3, 2005, 6:17 am | | Topic: Questions for the more advanced players Forum: Card Chat |
I have a couple questions for those that are actually students of hold 'em and are at the more advanced levels with regards to knowledge of the game.
First, I was rummaging around in some old threads last night, just looking for something interesting and I came upon a thread where a player was bitching about an opponent in an online casino being dealt pocket aces 2 consecutive hands. From what I have seen so far this person complains a lot so the thread didn't really strike me until I got to a reply where another poster spat out some numbers and came up with odds of 48,000 and change to 1 of this actually happening. This number as I recall was based on the odds of it happening in one game then doubled or something similar. This confused me and here's why.
Statistically, isn't the chance of being dealt a particular hand, be it AA or 88, the same for each hand dealt. The act of gathering played cards, shuffling, cutting, and dealing are all factors that are completely detatched from the game and are indvidual random events that contribute to the unpredictability of the dealt cards. Correct me if I'm wrong, but doesn't that mean, when simplified, that the odds of being dealt a particular hand no matter the rank don't fluctuate with number of consecutive hands? Doesn't that also mean that pocket aces have an equal statistical probability of being in the hole on every single hand that is dealt? Given of course that no other mitigating factors are changed such as number of players at the table.
If what I am thinking is correct then why all the complaining from people when opponents are dealt consecutive pocket pairs in online play where RNG's are used? The only factor that seems to me would affect the probability of pairs would be the number of players in the game. Am I completely wrong or right? Thanks for reading this long post and in advance for your thoughts on this.
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