| Posted by: joeeagles at March 28, 2007, 7:00 am | | Topic: Implied odds Forum: Card Chat |
I'm going to put my 2 cents into this. I believe that there is a problem with the way you're calculating your odds in this hand. The 4.9 to 1 is the correct figure of 64o against AA or KK. However, it appears to me that if we play this hand we should adjust our odds as if we are playing against both AA and KK.
As pointed out by aliengenius, in that seminar the answer to the question " what hands would you play against AA?", was "any hand". That, as it seems you all understood, is because of the power of knowledge.
The knowledge that we have here is that our opponent is holding AA or KK, so I'm wondering if because of that you need to adjust the way you're calculating odds. To make an example, if the flop is K-6-4 or A-6-4, are you willing to risk 100 or more BB by calling all the way to the river? It appears to me that you will have to defend against both AA and KK, almost as if you're playing this hand against 2 opponents, one holding AA the other holding KK. So, if I'm right, you need to adjust odds accordingly since they no longer will be 4.9 to 1. Perhaps I'm wrong but that's what it seems to me.
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