| Posted by: Bentheman87 at December 21, 2007, 4:57 pm | | Topic: Effective odds vs odds for the next card only. Forum: Card Chat |
"If you call both the flop bet and the turn bet, then you have paid a total price of 800 (200 + 600) to win 1200 (initial 200 pot + 1,000 behind): that's only 3:2 money odds on a draw that is 2:1 event odds to make."
Yeah, that is exactly what effective odds are. It's when you have to make a decision with more than one card to come. When you compare the total amount you will win if you hit s the total amount you will lose if you miss, and compare those odds to the odds against you hitting on the turn and river. But I thought effective odds were supposed to take implied odds into account. Using your example Alien, you're paying 800 to win 1200, so you're effective odds are 3:2. But what if you believe you're opponent will call a 500 chip bet on the river, even though the flush card is now showing. Then you're effective odds would improve to about 2.125:1.
Now here's what I really meant to ask. Say you have a flush draw on the flop. Odds against you hitting the flush on the turn is 4:1. Odds against you hitting on the turn and river is about 2:1. Is there any difference between using effective odds and comparing the pot odds to the odds of hitting on the turn only?
What I meant by that second method is seeing if the pot odds are better than 4:1, and calling if they are better. Then doing the same thing on the turn if you miss.
Is using effective odds always superior? Because right now I compare my odds against hitting to my pot odds one card at a time, just because it's so much easier than figuring out the effective odds.
*edit Oh I see you already factored in the implied odds for your example Alien. 3:2 would be assuming the opponent calls on the river with his last 200 chips.
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