| Posted by: Bentheman87 at January 31, 2008, 3:56 am | | Topic: Set Mining Forum: Card Chat |
I read a bit through that thread you posted alien, I see what they are saying kinda. Changing the odds you need to call preflop because of the possibility of being reraised preflop, flopping a set and still losing, and not getting paid off when you do get a set. But 8-1 odds against flopping a set don't take implied odds into account so it would make sense to call with worse odds than 8-1. So the possibility of being reraised preflop or flopping trips and still losing means we have to be getting better than 8-1, but implied odds means you can call with odds worse than 8-1 and the possibility of winning the pot without flopping trips (they could have two high cards where we're actually a small favorite preflop) means we can be getting worse odds than 8-1. So it makes sense we can call with odds a little worse than 8-1 doesn't it?
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